Chapter 1 - The
Scope of Physics
1. The
branch of physical science, which deals with interaction of matter and energy,
is called __________.
(Physics,
Chemistry, Biology)
2. The
new era of modern physics began near the end of __________.
(17th
century, 18th century, 19th century)
3. Screw
and lever were invented by __________.
(Newton
4.
Phythagoras is famous in __________.
(Physics,
Chemistry, None of these)
5. In the
field of research the strong incentive comes from __________.
(Bible,
Quran, Ingeel)
6. Number
of ayah which are taken from Surah Nooh for our book are __________.
(11 and
12, 13 and 14, 15 and 16)
7. Number
of ayah taken from Surah ‘Al Imran’ __________.
(170
and171, 180 and 181, 190 and 191)
8.
Al-Khawarizmi was the founder of __________.
(Microbiology,
Analytical Algebra, Physics)
9.
Logarithm was invented by __________.
(Al-
Beruni, Al-Khawarizmi, Ibn-e- Sina)
10. In
Muslim world the man was both a poet and a mathematician is __________.
(Omer
Khyyam, Al-Khawarizmi, Al-Beruni)
11.
Kitabul Manazir was written by __________.
(Yaqoob
Bin Ishaq, Ibn-e-Sina, Ibn-al-Haitham)
12. Pin
hole camera was invented by __________.
(Ibn-al-Haithan,
Al-Razi, Al-Beruni)
13.
Ibn-e- Sina was famous for his research in the field of __________.
(Medicine,
mathematics, physics)
14.
Muslim scientist who wrote about 200 books is __________.
(Abn-e-Sina,
Al-Razi, Omer khyyam)
15. 20th
century is called the century of __________.
(Physics,
Chemistry, Mathematics)
16.
Dimension of acceleration is __________.
(LT-1,
LT-2, L-1T)
17. The
significant figures of 16, 7 are __________.
(7, 6 and
7, 1, 6 and 7)
18. The
author of Kitab-ul-Masoodi was __________.
(Al-Beruni,
Ibn-e-Sina, Ibn-al-Haitham)
19. The
author of Al-Qanun-Fil-Tib was __________.
(Al-Beruni,
Ibn-e-Sina, Ibn-al-Haitham)
20.
Alsh-Shifa an encyclopedia of philosophy was written by __________.
(Al-Beruni,
Ibn-e-Sina, Abn-al-Haitham)
21.
Atomic clock is a (briefly) radio transmitter giving out short waves of
wavelength about __________.
(3cm, 3m,
3A°)
22. The
time interval occupied 9192631770 cycles of a specified energy change in the
Cesium atom is taken as equal to one __________.
(second,
minute, hour)
23. The
ampere is the unit of __________.
(time,
electric current)
24. Mole
is the amount of substance of a system which contains as many elementary
entities as there are atom in 0.012 kg of __________.
(Cesium –
133, Uranium – 298, Carbon – 12)
25. The
dimension of volume is __________.
(L2, L-2,
L3)
26. The
dimension of velocity is __________.
(LT-2,
L-1L2, LT-1)
27. The
dimension of linear momentum is __________.
(MLT-1,
ML-1T, M-1LT)
28. The
number of 6408.2 has __________ significant figure(s).
(one,
four, five)
29. The
circumference of a circle of radius 3.5 cm is __________.
(21.99cm,
38.49 cm,179.62 cm)
30. The
volume of a sphere of radius 3.5 cm is __________.
(21.99
cm3, 38.49cm3, 179.62cm3)
31. Al
Khawarizmi was the founder of __________.
(Decimal
system, Geomtery, Analytical Algebra)
32. A
number, which is reasonably reliable, is called __________.
(Ratio,
Function, Significant Figure)
33.
Electromagnetic wave theory of light is proposed by __________.
(Maxwell,
Newton
34. Wave
mechanics were introduced by __________.
(De-Broglie,
Maxwell, Newton
35.
Natural Radioactivity was discovered by __________.
(Madam
Curie, Bacquerel, Max-Plank)
Chapter 2 -
Scalars and Vectors
1.
Physical quantity, which can be completely specified by its magnitude only, is
called __________.
(Scalars,
Vectors, None of above)
2.
Physical quantity, which can be completely specified by its magnitude as well
as direction, is called __________.
(Scalars,
Vectors, None of Above)
3. Two or
more than two scalars measured in the same system of units are equal only if
they have the __________.
(Same
Magnitude, Same magnitude and direction, Same direction)
4.
Vectors are denoted by __________.
(or a, b,
c)
5.
Magnitude of vectors is denoted by __________.
(or a, b,
c)
6. Two
vectors are equal without any consideration of their initial point only if they
have __________.
(Same
magnitude, Same magnitude and similar direction, Same direction)
7. The
tail end of a vector line is called __________.
(Initial
point of the vector, terminal point of the vector, final point of the vector)
8. The
magnitude of a vector is always treated as __________.
(Negative,
Non-Negative, Negative and Positive both)
9. In
parallelogram law of vector addition the resultant of the vector is represented
by __________.
(Diagonal
of the parallelogram, any adjacent side of the parallelogram, opposite side of
the parallelogram)
10. Law
of cosine is normally used to determine the __________.
(Magnitude
of resultant, direction of resultant, both magnitude and direction of the
resultant)
11. The
product of number “m” and vectorgenerates a new vector. The magnitude of the
product is represented by __________.
(B =
|m|A, A = |m|B, |m| = BA)
12. Law
of Sine is normally used for determination of __________.
(Magnitude
of resultant, Direction of Resultant, Both Magnitude and Direction)
13. m= m
is governed by __________.
(commutative
law for multiplication, Associative law for multiplication, Distributive law
for multiplication)
14. m=
(mn)is governed by __________.
(Commutative
law for multiplication, Associative law for multiplication, Distributive law
for multiplication)
15. (m +
n) = m = n follows __________.
(Commutative
law, Associative Law, Distributive Law)
16. The
division of a vector by a positive number n is given by= |m| where m = 1/n the
direction of is __________.
(same as
, oppoosite to , parallel to itself)
17. The
division of vector by a negative number n is given by = |m| where m = 1/n the
direction theis __________.
(same as
, oppoosite to , parallel to itself)
18. A
unit vector is represented by __________.
(,,)
19. The
unit vectors are __________.
(parallel
to each other, perpendicular to each other, none of the above)
20. The
sum of rectangular components vector produces the original vector, which is
represented by __________.
21. The
magnitude of vectoris given by __________.
, , )
22. The
dot product of unit vectors and is equal to __________.
(i, , )
23. The
dot product of unit vectors and is equal to __________.
(
24. The
cross product of unit vector and is equal to __________.
(0, 1, )
25. The
vector product of and is ___________.
(-,, r)
26. A
vector which can be displaced parallel to it self and applied at any point is
known as __________.
(Null
vector, Free Vector, Position Vector)
27. A
vector, which can represent the position of a point with respect to some fixed
point in coordinate system, is called __________.
(Null
Vector, Free Vector, Position Vector)
28. If
two vectors which are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, their
combination produces __________.
(Null
Vector, Free Vector, Position Vector)
29. The
horizontal component of vector is given by __________.
(A cos q,
A sin q, A tan q)
30. The
vertical component of vector is given by __________.
(Acosq,
Asinq, Atan)
31. The
product of magnitude of two vectors and cosine of the angle between them is
called __________.
(Scalar
Product, Vector Product, None of the above)
32. The
product of magnitude of two vectors and sine of the angle between them is
called __________.
(Scalar
Product, Vector Product, None of the above)
33.
Ifandare the two vectors then __________.
34. Two
or more vectors are added by __________.
(Head to
tail rule, simple addition, none of these)
35. The
angle between the horizontal and vertical component of a vector is __________.
(90°, 0°,
180°)
36. If
the resultant of two forces of magnitude 3N and 4N is 5N then the angle between
these two forces is __________.
(0°, 45°,
90°)
37. The
dot product of two vectors is zero when they are __________.
(In the
same Direction, Perpendicular to each other, In the opposite direction)
38. If
the cross product of two vectors is zero they are __________.
(Parallel
to each other, Perpendicular to each other, Opposite in direction)
39. Ifare
__________.
(Parallel
to Each other, either A or B is a null vector, perpendicular to each other)
40. The
cross product of two vector is a __________.
(Scalar,
Vector, None of these)
Chapter 3 -
Motion
1. The
change of position of a body in a particular direction is called its
__________.
(Displacement,
Velocity, Acceleration)
2. The
change of displacement with respect to the time is called __________.
(Speed,
Velocity, Acceleration)
3. The
rate of change of position in a particular direction is called __________.
Displacement,
Velocity, Acceleration)
4. The
total change in displacement divided by the total change in time of body is
called its __________.
(Average
Velocity, Instantaneuous Velocity, Uniform Velocity)
5. The
change of displacement in a very small interval of time (time tends to zero) of
a body is called its __________.
(Average
Velocity, Instantaneous Velocity, Uniform Velocity)
6. When a
body undergoes an acceleration then __________.
(Its
speed increases, Its velocity increases, It falls toward the earth)
7. A
force acts on a body that is free to move. We known that magnitude and
direction of the force and the mass of the body. Newton
(Acceleration,
Speed, Velocity)
8. A hole
is drilled through the earth along the diameter and a stone dropped into it.
When the stone is at the centre of the earth it has __________.
(Mass,
Weight, Acceleration)
9. A
force of 3N acts perpendicularly to a force of 4N. Their resultant has
magnitude of __________.
(1N, 5N,
7N)
10. In
__________ of the following examples the motion of the car not accelerated.
(Car turns
a corner at constant speed of 29km/hr, Car climbs a steep hill with its speed
dropping from 60 km/hr at the bottom to 15 km/hr at the top, Car climbs a steep
hill at the constant speed of 40km/hr)
11. The
algebraic sign of acceleration depends on __________.
(The
choice of direction, Whether an object is speeding up or slowing down, The
position of the object)
12. The
acceleration due to gravity __________.
(has the
same value every where in space, has the same value every where on the earth,
varies with the latitude on the earth)
13.
Swimming is possible because of __________ law of motion.
(First,
Second, Third)
14. A
vehicle is moving horizontally at 30m/s. It is then accelerated uniformly in
the same direction at 0.5 m/s2 for 30 seconds. Its final speed is __________.
(180 m/s,
45.0 m/s, 90 m/s)
15. An
object falls freely from rest with an acceleration of 10m/s2 (approximately).
Then the distance traveled after 0.6 second is __________.
(1.8 m,
18.0 m, 3.6 m)
16. A
trolley of mass 1.0kg travelling at 3m/s, collides with second trolley which is
stationary. On collision the two trolley join together and continue to travel
in the original direction with a common speed of 1.0 m/s. __________is the mass
of second trolley.
(0.33kg,
0.67kg, 2.0kg)
17. A
steel ball is dropped in a viscous fluid. It will __________.
(move
down with uniform velocity, remain stationary, fall with uniform acceleration
of 9.8 m/s2)
18. A
trolley of mass 2kg moves with constant acceleration on a smooth horizontal
surface. Its speed changes from 4m/s to 16 m/s during 6.0 seconds. The trolley
has an acceleration of __________m/s2.
(0.5 ,
0.66, 2)
19.
During a stop a car comes to rest from a speed of 10 m/s in 5 seconds. Assuming
a steady deceleration during this time, it will travel a distance of
__________.
(2m, 10m,
25m)
20. A
ball is dropped from a tall building falls to the ground. Ball reaches the
ground in 3.0 seconds. __________ is the height of the building.
(15m,
30m, 45m)
21. A
trolley of mass 2kg is moving at 15m/s. It collides head on with another
trolley of mass 1kg initially at rest. The first trolley sticks with second
one. __________ is the speed of both trolleys after collision.
(5m/s,
7.5m/s, 10m/s)
22. When
a tennis ball is allowed to fall freely in air toward the ground. It is found
that it acquires a uniform velocity. This is because the __________.
(Weight
of the ball does not act beyond a certain speed, Upthrust of the displaced air
supports the ball, Frictional force caused by the air increases with speed)
23. The
force required to accelerate mass of 1kg at 1.0 m/s2 is __________.
(1N, 10N,
100N)
24. If a
stone falls from rest with a uniform acceleration of 10m/s2 (approximately)
then __________.
(It falls
equal distance in successive seconds, it falls 10.0 m during the first second,
its speed increases by 10 m/s each second)
25. The
frictionless trolley is moving horizontally at 30m/s. It is then accelerated
uniformly in the same direction at 0.5 m/s2 for 30.0 seconds. The final speed
is __________.
(15 m/s,
45 m/s, 75 m/s)
26. A
person covers half of its journey at a speed of 40 m/s and the other half at 50
m/s. His average speed during the whole journey is __________.
(45 m/s,
46 m/s, 48 m/s, 44.1 m/s)
27. An
object is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 40 m/s and returns after
some time into the thrower’s hands with the same velocity. Average velocity
during the whole movement is __________.
(40m/s,
60m/s, 80 m/s, 0)
28. A
body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration of 10m/s2 in the
first 10 seconds. During the next 10 seconds it moves with uniform velocity
attained. The total distance covered by it is __________.
(200m,
1000m, 1500m, 500)
29. A
ball A dropped from the top of a building while another ball B is thrown
horizontally at the same time. The ball strikes the ground is __________.
(Ball A,
Ball B, Both strikes simultaneously)
30.
__________ of the following is one dimensional motion.
(The
wheels of a moving train, the earth revolving round the sun, A train running on
a straight track)
31. A
body has an initial velocity of 8 m/s. After moving 4m its velocity is 12 m/s.
The acceleration is __________m/s2.
(10, 100,
4)
32. A
body starting from rest travels 120 m in 8th second. Assuring the motion to be
uniform, its acceleration is __________m/s2.
(15, 16,
10)
33. A
body thrown vertically up with a velocity of 10m/s, comes back in to the hand
of the thrower after 4 seconds. Height attained by the body is __________.
(Take g = 10m/s2)
(10m, 5m,
15m)
34. The
total change in velocity of a body divided by the total time is called
__________.
(Average
acceleration, Instaneous Acceleration, Uniform Accelration)
35. The
change in velocity of a body in a very small interval of time (time interval
tends to zero) is called __________.
(Average
acceleration, Instantaneous Acceleration, Uniform Acceleration)
36. When
there is equal change in velocity in equal intervals of time, then acceleration
is called __________.
(Average
Acceleration, Instantaneous Acceleration, Uniform Acceleration)
37. Force
is that agent which produces or tends to produce the __________.
(Speed in
the body, Acceleration in the body, Constant velocity in the body)
38.
Whenever a constant force is applied on a body then it will move with
__________.
(Cosntant
Speed, Constant Velocity, Constant Acceleration)
39. The
direction of tension in string will always in the __________.
(Same
direction of applied force, Opposite direction of applied force, None of the
above)
40. A
body of mass 10kg is suspended by a string, the tension produced in the string
is __________. (Take g = 10m/s2)
(100N,
9.8 N, 980 N)
41. In
elastic collision between the two bodies __________.
(Only
mometum of the system is conserved, Only the kinetic Energy of the system is
conserved, Both the kinetic Energy and Momentum of the system remain the same)
42. In
inelastic collision between the two bodies __________.
(Only
mometum of the system is conserved, Only the kinetic Energy of the system is
conserved, Both the kinetic Energy and Momentum of the system remain the same)
43. If a
lighter body collides elastically with a massive body at rest then the lighter
bodies will __________.
(Rebound,
Come to rest, Start to move with a velocity double of its initial)
44. The
kinetic friction will always be __________.
(Greater
than the static friction, Equal to the Static Friction, Less than the static
Friction)
45. The
unit of coefficient of friction in SI system is __________.
(Newton
46. Due
to the rise in temperature the coefficient of fluid friction will __________.
(Decrease,
Increase, Remain the same)
47. A
body of mass ‘m’ slides down a frictionless inclined plane making an angle q
with the horizontal then __________ of the following statement is most
appropriate.
(The
component of its weight normal to the plane pulls it down the plane, The
component of its weight parallel to the plane is balanced by the normal
reaction of the plane, The body moves down the plane with a constant
acceleration)
48. If a
weight of 1 kg and 1gm are dropped from the same height simultaneously then
__________.
(1kg will
reach the ground earlier, 1gm weight will rach the ground earlier, bother will
reach the ground at the same time)
49. If
the velocity of the body is uniform then __________.
(Its
speed remains uniform, Its speed and direction of motion will remain the same,
Its acceleration is uniform)
50. If a
particle is moving with constant speed in a circle then its velocity is
__________.
(Zero,
Uniform, Variable)
Chapter 4 -
Motion in Two Dimensions
1. The
motion of a body along a straight line is called __________.
(Linear
Motion, Angular Motion, Vibratory Motion)
2. The
motion of a body along a curved path is called __________.
(Linear
Motion, Angular Motion, Vibratory Motion)
3. The
example of motion of the body in two dimensions is __________.
(Ball
moving along a straight line, Progectile, Train moving along a straight track)
4. In
projectile motion the object is purely under the influence of __________.
(Centripetal
Force, Force of Gravity, Restoring Force)
5. In
projectile motion (freely falling bodies) sign assigned to the acceleration due
to gravity (g) will always be __________.
(Positive,
Negative, None of these)
6. In
considering the projectile motion all the vectors like, velocity and
displacement along positive y-axis will be taken as __________.
(Positive,
Negative, None of these)
7. During
the projectile motion, the vertical component of a velocity __________.
(Changes,
remains the same, None of these)
8. During
the projectile motion, the horizontal component of the velocity __________.
(Increases,
Remains the same, Decreases)
9. The
path of the projectile is __________.
(Parabolic,
Hyperbolic, Elliptical)
10.
During the projectile motion the acceleration along the horizontal direction
will __________.
(Decrease,
Increase, be Zero)
11. In
projectile the acceleration along vertical direction will __________.
(Decrease,
Increase, Remain the same)
12. The
expression for the time to reach the maximum height of the projectile is
__________.
(Vosinq/g,
2Vosinq/g, Vosinq/2g)
13. The
expression for the total time of flight of the projectile is __________.
(Vosinq/g,
2Vosinq/g, Vosinq/2g)
14. The
expression for maximum height reached by the projectile is __________.
(Vo2sin2q/g,
Vosin2q/2g, Vo2sin2q/2g)
15. The
expression for the horizontal range of the projectile is __________.
(Vo2sin2q/g,
Vosin2q/g, Vo2sin2q/2g
16. The
expression for the maximum range of the projectile is __________.
(Vo2/g,
Vosin2q/2g, Vosinq/2g)
17. For
the maximum range of the projectile the angle of elevation must be __________.
(0°, 45°,
90°)
18. The
horizontal range of the projectile is directly proportional to the __________.
(Initial
Velocity, Square of the initial velocity, Square root of the initial velocity)
19. The
horizontal range of the projectile is directly proportional to the __________.
(sine of
the angle of elevation, sine of the twice of the angle of elevation, square of
the sine of the angle of elevation)
20. The
expression for the trajectory of the projectile is __________.
(ax – ½
bx2, a/x – bx2/2, ax – bx2)
21. In
projectile motion the small angle of elevation produces __________.
(Flat
Trajectory, High Trajectory, Low trajectory)
22. In
projectile motion the large angle of elevation produces __________.
(Flat
trajectory, Low Trajectory, High trajectory)
23. If
the angle of elevation of the projectile is 90° then its horizontal range will
be __________.
(Minimum,
Zero, Maximum)
24. For
the projectile with high trajectory their time of flight will be __________.
(Short,
Long, None of these)
25. For
the projectile with low trajectory, their time of flight will be __________.
(Short,
Long, None of these)
26. If a
projectile has some horizontal range at an angle of elevation of 15° then its
range will be the same when the angle of elevation is equal to __________.
(30°,
45°, 75°)
27. At
maximum height, the vertical component of the velocity of the projectile is
__________.
(Minimum,
Zero, Maximum)
28.
Horizontal motion with constant velocity and vertical motion with constant
acceleration is called __________.
(Rectilinear
Motion, Projectile Motion, Circular Motion)
29. A
ball is thrown horizontally from a height of 400m with a muzzle velocity of
100m/s. It experiences a horizontal acceleration equal to __________.
(50m/s2,
9.8 m/s2, zero)
30. If a
shell is fired with the velocity of 9.8 m/s at an angle of 45° then its
horizontal range will be __________.
(Zero,
4.9m, 9.8m)
31. A
projectile is fired horizontally with an initial velocity of 20m/s. after 3
seconds its horizontal component of velocity is __________.
(60m/s,
6.67,20 m/s)
32. In
projectile motion __________ of the following angle will result the maximum
range.
(20°,
45°, 60°)
33. An
aeroplane moving horizontally with a velocity of 100m/s, drops a food packet
while flying at a height of 490m. The packet will strike the ground from the
point just vertically below the point of the projection at a distance of
__________.
(980m,
1000, 1960 m)
34. The
ball A is dropped from the top of a building simultaneously the ball B is
thrown horizontally then __________.
(ball A
strikes the ground first, ball B strikes the ground first, both ball A and B
will strike the ground simultaneously)
35. If
the launch angle of a locust is 55° and its range is 0.8 m then the take off
speed of a locust is __________.
(2 m/s,
2.9 m/s, 3.9 m/s)
36.
__________ should be the initial velocity of a rocket if it to hit a target
1000 km away.
(3130.5
m/s, 313.5 m/s, 31.35 m/s)
37. If an
object is moving with constant speed along a circle then its motion is __________.
(Linear,
Vibratory, Uniform Circular)
38. The
expression for the time period of an object moving with constant speed v along
a circle of radius r is given by __________.
(4pr/v,
2pr/v, pr2/v)
39. The
angle subtended by an object with the centre of the circle when its is moving
from one point to another on its circumference is called __________.
(Angular
Displacement, Angular Speed, Angular Acceleration)
40. The
unit of angular displacement in system of measurement is __________.
(Radian,
m/s, rad/s)
41. The
central angle subtended by an arc whose length is equal to the radius of the
circle is equal to one __________.
(Radian,
Degree, Gradient)
42. The
relation linear (s) and angular (q) displacements is given by __________.
(s = rq,
s = r/q, q = sr)
43. In
the relation s = rq, q will always be measured in __________.
(Degrees,
Radian, None of these)
44. One
radian is equal to __________.
(5.73
degrees, 57.3 degrees, 53.7 degree)
45. One
degree is equal to __________.
(0.017
rad, 17.45 rad, 1.74 rad)
46. The
angular displacement or shift per unit time is called __________.
(Angular
Speed, Angular Velocity, Angular Acceleration)
47. One
revolution is equal to __________.
(2p rad,
p/2 rad, 4p rad)
48. 1
radial is equal to __________.
(2prevolution,
p/2 rad, p1/2 revolution)
49. The
direction of angular velocity is always along the axis of rotation and it can
be determined by __________.
(Head to
tail rule, Right hand rule, None of these)
50. If an
object is rotating in the counter-clockwise direction then the direction then
the direction of angular velocity is __________.
(Into the
plane, Out of the plane, None of these)
51. If a
particle with instantaneous linear velocity ‘v’ is rotating along the
circumference of circle of radius ‘r’ then the relation between angular
velocity (w) and its linear velocity (v) is given by __________.
(v = w/r,
v = rw, w = vr)
52. If a
particle covers equal angular displacement in equal interval of time then its
angular velocity is __________.
(Variable,
Uniform, Average)
53. The
rate of change of angular velocity is called __________.
(Angular
Displacement, Angular Acceleration, None of these)
54. The
unit of angular acceleration in SI system is __________.
(deg/s2,
m/s2, rad/s2)
55. The
relation between linear acceleration (a) and angular acceleration (a) of a
particle is given by __________.
(a = ra,
a = a/r, a = ar)
56. The
velocity of the particle tangent to its circular path is called __________.
(Angular
Velocity, Uniform Angular Velocity, Tangential Velocity)
57. In
circular motion the time period and angular velocity of a particle are
__________.
(Directly
proportional to each other, Inversely proportional to each, none of these)
58. If a
particle is moving with constant speed along the circumference of a circle then
the acceleration possessed by the particle is __________.
(Linear
Acceleration, Centripetal Acceleration, None of these)
59. The
direction of centripetal acceleration will always be __________.
(Towards
the centre of the circle, Aways from the centre of the circle)
60. The
force, which produces the centripetal acceleration, is called __________.
(Centrifugal
Force, Gravitational Force, Centripetal Force)
61. The
expression for centripetal acceleration is given as __________.
(v/r,
v2/r, r2w)
62. The
expression for centripetal acceleration in terms of time period (T) is given as
__________.
(4pr2/T,
4pr/T, 4p2r/T2)
63. The
force, which keeps the body in circular motion and always directed towards the
centre of the circle is called __________.
(Force of
Gravity, Centripetal Force, Centrifugal Force)
64. The
acceleration of the body or particle tangent to the circular path is called
__________.
(Centripetal
Acceleration, Tangential Acceleration, None of these)
65. In
circular motion the tangential component of acceleration arises when
__________.
(speed of
the object is changed, speed of object is constant, direction of motion of the
object is changed)
66. In
circular motion the centripetal component of acceleration arises when
__________.
(speed of
the object is changed, speed of the object is constant, direction of motion of
object is changed)
67.
Centripetal acceleration and tangential acceleration are always __________.
(Parallel
to Each other, Perpendicular to each other, None of thse)
68. A car
is travelling at a constant speed of 20m/s rounds a curve of radius 100m. What
is its acceleration.
(2m/s2,
3m/s2, 4m/s2)
69. If
the speed of the object moving in a circle is doubled then centripetal force
__________.
(Remains
the same, Becomes half of its initial value, Becomes from times than its
initial value)
70. When
an object moves round the circular track, the centripetal force is provided by
__________.
(Force of
Gravity, Fictious Force, Frictional Force)
Chapter 5
Torque, Angular Momentum and Equilibrium
1. Troque
is defined as __________.
(Time
rate of change of angular momentum, Time rate of change of linear momentum,
time rate of change of angular velocity)
2. The
vector quantity torque __________.
(Depends
on the choice of origin, does not depend on the choice of origin)
3. Every
point of rotating rigid body has __________.
(the same
angular velocity, the same linear velocity, the same linear acceleration)
4. The
right hand rule is applied to find __________.
(The
direction, of a vector obtained by the vector product of two vectors, The
magnitude of a vector obtained in the above manner, neither the direction nor
the magnitude)
5. Two
forces, which form a couple __________.
(can be
replaced by a single equivalent force, cannot be replaced by a single
equivalent force, are perpendicular to each other)
6. The
direction of torque is __________.
(The same
as the direction of the corresponding applied force, opposite to the direction
of the applied force, perpendicular to the direction of applied force)
7. The
centre of mass of system of particles __________.
(coincides
always with centre of gravity, never coincides always with the centre of
gravity, coincides with the centre of gravity only in a uniform gravitational
field)
8. The
moment of momentum is called __________.
(Couple,
Torque, Angular Momentum)
9.
Dimensions of moment of inertia are __________.
(M1L°T-1,
M1L°T-1, M1L2T°)
10. The
unit of moment of inertia is SI system is __________.
(kg/m,
kg-m, kg-m2)
11.
Radius of a ring is 2cm and its mass is 20g. Its M.I about an axis passing
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is __________.
(10g –
cm2, 80g – cm2, 20g - cm2, 40g – cm2)
12. If
the distance of a particle from the axis of rotation is doubled, the moment of
inertia __________.
(Becomes
half, Increases two times, increases four times, increases eight times)
13. The
physical quantity, which produces angular acceleration, is called __________.
(Centripetal
Force, Troque, Angular Velocity)
14.
Torque of a force T = is a vector quantity. Its direction is determined by
__________.
(Right
hand rule, Knowing the direction of F, Knowing the position of origin)
15. In
rotational motion, the analog of force is __________.
(rotational
inertia, moment of inertia, torque)
16. The
term torque is synonymous with __________.
(Moment
of force, Moment of inertia, Angular Momentum)
17. The
product of force times the perpendicular distance between some point and the
line of action of the force is __________.
(the
moment of inertia acting on the body, The moment of force about the chosen
point, The angular momentum of the body)
18. The
magnitude of torque is equal to the product of the force and the moment arm.
The moment arm is __________.
(The
distance between the point (point chosen), and the pointof action of the force,
the maximum distance between the point and the line of action of the force, The
minimum (perpendicular) distance between the pivot and the line of action of
the force)
19. If
the direction of the applied force is reversed then __________.
(Its
torque remains unchanged, the magnitude of its torque changes and direction of
the torque remains the same, The magnitude of its torque remains the same but
the direction of the torque reverses)
20. If
the directions of are reversed then __________.
(The
magnitude and direction of the torque remain unaltered, the magnitude of the
torque changes but direction remains unchanged, the magnitude of the torque
does not change but direction reverses)
21. A
couple consists of __________.
(Two
equal and opposite forces acting at a point on a body, two equal and parallel
forces acting at a point on a body, two equal and antiparallel forces acting at
two different points on a body)
22. The
arm couple is __________.
(The
smallest distance between two equal and antiparallel forces, The greates
distance between two equal and antiparallel forces, The lines of action of two
equal and opposite forces)
23. The
units of torque and couples are __________.
(N-m and
N-m2 respectively, N-m2 and N-m respectives, N-m for both)
24. A
pair of forces equal in magnitude and opposite in direction with non-coincident
lines of action is known as __________.
(A
couple, A Moment of Force, A Null Vector)
25. The
centre of gravity of an object is __________.
(The foce
of gravity on the object, The point about which the object rotates, The point
at which the total weight of the objects acts)
26. The
centre of gravity of a body a irregular shape lies __________.
(At its
centre, At the surface of the body, At the intersection of medians)
27.
During rotational motion, the mass of a body or system is considered to be
concentrated at a single distance from the axis (centre) of rotation. The
distance is called __________.
(The
radius of Gyration, The centre of mass, The moment of inertia)
28. A
force passing through the centre of gravity of a body __________.
(Results
only in rotational motion, Results only in translational motion, holds the body
in equilibrium)
29. In
rotational motion, the analog of linear momentum is called angular momentum .
They are connected by relation __________.
()
30. In
rotational motion, the quantity, which plays the same role as the inertial mass
in rectilinear motion, is called __________.
(Inertia,
Angular Momentum, Moment of Inertia)
31. The
symbol that is used to represent rotational inertia or moment of inertia is
__________.
(W, l, R)
32. The
angular momentum (L) can be expressed in terms of moment of inertia (l) and
angular velocity (w) as __________.
(L = lw,
L = l w2, L = l/w)
33. The
product of the rotational inertia about an axis and the angular velocity of a
body rotating about this axis is called __________.
(Moment
of Inertia, Torque, Angular Momentum)
34. The
moment of inertia or rotational inertial depends upon __________.
(Mass
Distribution of the body about the axis of rotation, Mass of the body and its
radius, Mass of the body and its angular speed)
35. The
time rate of change of angular momentum of a body is equal to __________.
(The
applied force, The applied torque, The moment of inertia)
36. If no
external torques act, the angular momentum of a body rotating about a fixed
axis in two dimension is __________.
(Variable,
Constant, Not conserved)
37. The
dimensions of angular momentum are __________.
(MLT-1,
MLT-2, ML2T-1)
38. The
SI of angular momentum is __________.
(kgmsec-1,
kgm2sec-2, kgm2sec-1)
39. The
turning effect of a force is called __________.
(Acceleration,
Torque, Velocity)
40. If q
is the angle between force and displacement vectors then the physical quantity
torque is mathematical expressed as __________.
(C =
rFsinq, C = Frcosq, C = Frtanq)
41. The
perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation of a body to the line of
action of a force is called __________.
(Moment
Arm, Torque, Displacement)
42. If
the moment arm of a force is zero, i.e. the line of action of a force is
passing through the pivot then the magnitude of the torque generated as such is
__________.
(Zero,
Clockwise, Anticlockwise)
43. The
torque depends upon __________.
(Magnitude
of force, Magnitude of Displacement, Magnitude of Force and Displacement)
44. The
magnitude of torque will be zero if the angle between force and displacement is
__________.
(0°, 45°,
60°)
45. The
first condition us is sufficient to establish the mechanical equilibrium if
__________.
(The body
is spherically symmetric, The body is not deformable, The body may be
considered as mass point)
46. An
extended body in equilibrium many be analyzed as if it is a particle provided
that __________.
(All the
forces are concurrent, The lines of action of all forces meet in a common
point, any of the above)
47. The
condition for equilibrium of a particle is that the __________.
(Vector
sum of all forces be zero, Acceleration be constant, Vector sum of the forces
and torques be zero)
48. The
particle moving with constant velocity may be __________.
(Changing
in direction, Acceleration, In equilibrium)
49.
Consider a body suspended from a ceiling by a single vertical cord. The weight
of the body is a force exerted by __________.
(By the
body on the ceiling, By the body on the cord, By the earth on the body)
50. It is
easier to turn a steering wheel with both hands than with a single hand because
__________.
(A couple
acts on the wheel, Two equal and opposite forces act on the wheel, The wheel is
more strongly gripped)
Chapter 6 - Gravitation
1. The
acceleration due to gravity __________.
(Has the
same value every where in space, has the same value every where on the earth,
Varies with latitude on the earth)
2. If a
planet existed whose mass and radius were both twice that of the earth, then
acceleration due to gravity at its surface would be __________.
(4.9
m/s2, 19.6 m/s2, 2.45 m/s2)
3. When
the space ship is at a distance equal to twice of the earth’s radius from its
centre then the gravitational acceleration is __________.
(4.9 m/s2,
19.6 m/s2, 2.45 m/s2)
4. A hole
is drilled through the earth along the diameter and a stone is dropped into it.
When the stone is at the centre of the earth it has __________.
(Mass,
Weight, Acceleration)
5. Newton
(Can only
be indirectly inferred from the behaviour of the planent, Can be directly
verified in the larboratory, is valid only with in the solar system)
6. The
gravitational force between two bodies does not depend upon __________.
(Their
separation, Product of their masses, The sum of their masses)
7. If the
radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% while its mass remaining same, the
acceleration due to gravity on the earth surface would __________.
(Decrease,
Remain the same, Increase)
8.
Planets revolve round the sun due to __________.
(Mutual
attraction and repulsion between the sun and the planets, Gravitational
attraction between the sun and the planets, Centripetal Force)
9. Force
of mutual attraction of earth on the objects is called __________.
(Weight,
Mass, Gravitation)
10. When
a person goes down to the bottom of deep mine compared to his weight on the
surface then its weight will __________.
(remain
same, Increase, Decrease)
11. The
weight of an object at the pole is greater than at equator. This is because
__________.
(Gravitational
pull is more at the poles, the shape of the earth, the attraction of the moon
is maximum at the earth’s surface)
12. On
the surface of the moon the weight of a person __________.
(Increases,
Decreases, Remains the same)
13. A
spring balance is being used to weigh mass of 1kg in a lift. If the spring
balance reads 9N and the acceleration of free fall (g) = 10m/s2. The lift is
__________.
(Ascending
at 1m/s2, At rest, Descending at 1m/s2)
14. The
acceleration of free fall on moon is about one sixth of its value on earth. If
on the earth a body has mass ‘m’ and weight ‘w’, then on the moon, mass and
weight will be respectively about __________.
(m/6 and
w/6, m/6 and w, m and w/6)
15.
Spring balance is used to measure __________.
(Mass of
the object, Apparent weight of the object, None of the above)
16. A
person whose weight is 120 pound on the earth, on the moon his weight will be
approximately __________.
(20
pound, 30 pound, 40 pound)
17.
According to the law of gravitation the force of attraction between the two
bodies is directly proportional to the __________.
(Sum of
the masses of the bodies, Product of their masses, Difference of their masses)
18.
According to the Newton
(distance
between the two bodies, Square of the distance between the two bodies, none of
the above)
19. The
gravitational force between two bodies whose mass are m1 and m2 are placed at a
distance r from each other is __________.
(,, )
20. If
the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force between
them becomes __________.
(half of
its original value, one fourth of its original value, four times of its
original value)
21. The
value of gravitational constant is __________.
(6.673 x
10-11 N-m2 /kg2, 7.673 x 10-11 N-m2 /kg2, 8.673 x 10-11 N-m2 /kg2)
22. The
dimensions of gravitational constant are __________.
(L3M-1T-2,
L2M2T-1, LM-2T-2)
23. The
approximate value of the average density of the earth is __________.
(5.5 x
103 kg /m3, 6.5 x 103 kg /m3, 7.5 x 103 kg /m3)
24. The
value of g varies with radius of Earth as it is __________.
(Inversely
proportional to the radius of the earth, Inversely proportional to the square
of the radius of the earth, Directly proportional to the square of the radius
of the earth)
25.
Acceleration of the moon is about __________.
(2.272 x
10-3 m/s2, 2.272 x 103 m/s2, None of these)
26. The
value of orbit radius of the moon is about __________.
(3.84 x
108 m, 3.84 x 105 m, 3.84 x 103 m)
27. The
time taken by the moon to complete one revolution around the earth is
__________.
(2.36 x
106 seconds, 2.36 x 104 seconds, 2.36 x 108 seconds)
28. The
gravitational force of attraction between two balls each of mass 100kg when
they are placed at a distance of 1m apart is __________.
(6.673 x
10-8 N, 6.673 x 10-11 N, 6.673 x 10-7 N)
29. The
acceleration due to gravity decreases for a point above the surface of the
earth and for the same point below the surface of the earth with a __________.
(Faster
rate, Slow rate, Same rate)
30. The
value of the gravitational acceleration at a distance equal to the earth’s
radius above the earth’s surface is __________.
(9.8
m/s2, 4.9 m/s2, 2.45 m/s2)
31. The
value of the distance from the centre of the earth when the gravitational
acceleration has one half the value it has on the earth’s surface __________.
(1.414
Re, 2Re, 0.5Re)
32. A
person with a mass of 40kg is standing on a scale in an elevator. The elevator
moves upwards with a constant acceleration of 1.2 m/s2, then the weight of the
person as measured by him in the elevator is __________.
(340 N,
440N, 540N)
33. The
sun exerts a force of attraction on the planets thus keeping them in their
__________.
(Radii,
Orbits, State of motion)
34.
Numerical value of the gravitational acceleration can also be estimated by
knowing the __________.
(Average
Density of the Earth, Circular Motion, Mass of the earth)
35. A
spring balance suspended from the ceiling of an elevator supports an object.
The magnitude and direction of acceleration, which would make the balance
reading zero, is __________.
(9.8 m/s2
downward, 9.8 m/s2 upward, none of these)
36. The
earth traverses its circular orbit in 3.15 x 107 seconds, orbiting at an orbital
velocity of 2.9 x 104 m/s, then its orbit radius is __________.
(1.45 x
1011 m, 1.45 x 108 m, 1.45 x 106 m)
37. The
artificial gravity is produced in a satellite to overcome the state of
weightlessness experienced by the astronaut by __________.
(Spinning
it around its own axis, Increasing the orbital speed of it, Decreasing its
orbital speed)
38. The
expression for the frequency of rotation of the satellite to produce artificial
gravity is __________.
(1/2p
Ög/R, 2p Ög/R, 1/2p ÖR/g)
39. If
the mass of the earth becomes four times to its initial value then the value of
g will be __________.
(Equal to
its initial value, Four times to its initial value, One fourth of its initial
value)
40. The
value of gravitation acceleration (g) on the surface of the planet of radius
105 m and mass 10kg is __________.
(6.67 x
10-8 m/s2, 6.67 x 10-11 m/s2, 6.67 x 10-10 m/s2)
41. The
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is about _________.
(One
sixth the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth, One fourth
the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, double the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth)
42. The
mass of a planet and its diameter are three times those of Earth’s. Then the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet will be _________.
(One
third on the Earth’s, half on the Earth’s, None of the above)
43.
Acceleration due to gravity at the centre of the earth is _________.
(Zero,
Maximum, None of these)
44. The
equation, which gives the magnitude of centripetal acceleration of the moon, is
_________.
(4p2R/T2,
4pR/T2, 4p2R/T)
Chapter 7 -
Work, Enegrgy and Power
1. The
dot product of force and displacement is __________.
(Work,
Energy, Power)
2. When
the force and displacement are parallel to each other, then work is __________.
(Minimum,
Maximum, None of These)
3. When
the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then work is
__________.
(Minimum,
Maximum, None of these)
4. When
the force and displacement are in the opposite direction then the work is
__________.
(Positive,
Negativem, Zero)
5. The
cross product of force and moment arm is __________.
(Work,
Power, None of these)
6. Work
is certainly done, if a body __________.
(Uses
some energy, Covers some distance, Covers some displacement)
7. One
electron volt is equal to __________.
(1.6 x
10-19J, 1.6 x 10-18J, 1.6 x 1019J)
8. One
joule is equal to __________.
(103erg,
107erg, 10-3erg)
9. The
dot product of force and velocity is called __________.
(Work,
Power, Energy)
10. Power
is a __________.
(Scalar
Quantity, Vector Quantity, None of these)
11. Work
done by a variable force is equal to __________.
(where
Ddi is small, where Ddi is large, None of these)
12. A man
does the work if he __________.
(Goes to
fifth floor of the building, Goes to fifth floor of the building and comes back
to ground floor, remains on the ground floor)
13. One
horsepower is equal to __________.
(550ft.lb/s,
746 ft.lb/s, None of these)
14. Law
of conservation of energy is equivalent to __________.
(Law of
conservation of mass, Law of conservation of momentum, None of these)
15. The
expression for the absolute potential energy of mass m at the earth surface is
given as __________.
(mgh,
GmMe/Re, GmMe/Re2)
16. Work
done on a body is equal to __________.
(P.t,
P/t, F/A2)
17. In a
tug of war, team A is slowly giving way to the team B, then __________.
(Team A
is doing negative work, Team A is doing positive work, team A is not doing
work)
18.
Kinetic energy of an object __________.
(Is
independent of the direction of velocity, Depends on the direction of velocity,
Is a scalar quantity)
19. Work
energy equation is simply __________.
(Law of
conservation of mass, Law of conservation of energy, none of these)
20. Work
done by a grass cutter is maximum when he pulls it __________.
(Making
an angle 45° with the floor, Making an angle of 90° with the floor, Along a
line parallel to the floor)
21. A car
covers some distance without any acceleration in it, then __________.
(Engine
did some positive work, Engine did some negative work, none of these)
22. A
body lifts a block on to a table in time Dt. The work he did, depends upon
__________.
(Mass of
the block, time, none of these)
23. The
unit of power is __________.
(watt-hour,
Joule-second, N-m/s)
24. The
rate of change of momentum multiplies by displacement gives __________.
(Power,
Pressure, Work)
25. A
ball during its downward journey possesses __________.
(Kinetic
Energy only, Potential Energy only, Both kinetic energy and potential energy)
26. Work
done in the gravitational field __________.
(Is
independent of the path followed, depends upon the path followed, none of
these)
27. Work
done in the gravitational field along a closed path is equal to __________.
(Zero,
Maximum, none of these)
28.
Einstein’s mass energy equation is __________.
(E = mc,
E = mc2, E = m2c)
29. 1
kilowatt hour is equal to __________.
(3.6 x
106J, 6.3 x 106 J, None of these)
30. The
tidal energy is due to the __________.
(Rotation
of earth relative to moon, rotation of the earth around sun, none of these)
31. The
dimensions of work are __________.
(ML2T-2,
MLT-2, ML2T-1)
32. The
dimensions of energy are __________.
(ML2T-2,
MLT-2, ML2T-1)
33. The
dimensions of power are __________.
(ML2T-2,
ML2T-3, ML3T-2)
34.
__________ of the following quantity is defined as rate expenditure of energy.
(Momentum,
Power, Velocity)
35.
Gravitational potential energy transform into kinetic energy if __________.
(Water
evaporates, A train accelerates from rest along a horizontal track, A body
falls from a table)
36.
__________ of the following represents the energy lost by a 1 N weight in
falling through 1 m.
(0.10 J,
1 J, 10 J)
37. Watt
may be defined as __________.
(Joule
per coulomb, Joule per second, Newton
38.
__________ of the following does not convert one type of energy into another.
(Solar
cell, Steam engine, Transformer)
39.
__________ of the following has the same unit as that of potential energy.
(Acceleration,
Momentum, Work)
40.
Experiment shows that the average power of a man walking upstairs at an
ordinary pace is only about __________.
(0.22 kW,
0.33 kW, 0.55 kW)
41. A
body whose mass is 40g finds that he can run up a flight of 45 steps each 16 cm
high in 5.2 sec. His power is __________.
(0.44 kW,
0.54 kW, 0.64 kW)
42. A
person having a mass of 60kg exerts a horizontal force of 300N in pushing a 90
kg object through a distance of 3m along a horizontal floor. The work done by
this person is __________.
(7000
Joules, 900 Joules, 1100 Joules)
43.
__________ is the kinetic energy of 60 g bullet moving at a speed of 600 m/s.
(10,800J,
11,800J, 12,800J)
44. A
ball of mass 2kg rolls from the top of a smooth slope which is 7 m high and 14
m long to its bottom. The change in the gravitational potential energy is
approximately __________.
(137J,
139J, 141J)
45. A man
weighing 600 N climbs 5m vertically upward in 8 seconds his rate of working is
__________.
(175watt,
275watt, 375watt)
Chapter 8 - Wave
Motion and Sound
1. If k
is a positive constant __________ of the following expression represents simple
harmonic motion (x is the displacement of particle from mean position).
(Acceleration
= kx, acceleration = -kx, acceleration = kx2, acceleration = -kx2)
2. If k
and a are the positive constants and x is the displacement from equilibrium
position. __________ of the following expression represents S.H.M.
(Velocity
= k (a2-x2), Velocity = Ök(a2 – x2),Velocity =Ök(x2 – a2), Velocity = k(x2-a2))
3. A bob
of mass m is hanging from the end of an elastic spring and executing S.H.M with
a period T. If this mass is replaced by another bob of mass 2m, the new time
period of this system will be __________.
(T, 2T,
Ö2T, T/2)
4. A bob
of mass m is hanging from the end of an inelastic string is executing S.H.M
with a period T. If this bob is replaced by an other bob of double mass. The
new time period of this system will be __________.
(T, 2T,
Ö2T, T/2)
5.
__________ of is not true for S.H.M.
(Motion
is Periodic, Elastic Restoring force must be present, System may possess
inertia, Total Energy of system is conserved)
6. A body
is attached to the end of a spring is executing S.H.M. at the extreme position
its __________.
(Kinetic
energy is maximum, Kinetic Energy is zero, Both kinetic and potential energy
are zero, its velocity is maximum)
7. The
motion of the simple pendulum is __________.
(Always
simple harmonic, may be simple harmonic, can never be simple harmonic,
circular)
8. A body
is executing S.H.M if __________.
(Its
acceleration is proportional to displacement and directed away from mean
postion, Its acceleration is proportional to displacement and directed towards
mean position, Its acceleration is zero, none of these)
9. A body
is executing S.H.M at the mean position if __________.
(If its
acceleration is maximum, its acceleration is zero, its velocity is zero, it
posseses maximum potential energy)
10. A
body is executing S.H.M at the mean position if __________.
(Its
acceleration is maximum, Its velocity is maximum, It possesses maximum
potential energy, none of these)
11. A
body is executing S.H.M if __________.
(Its
amplitude of motion remains constant, Its amplitude of motion may be constant,
Its motion is not periodic, its motion may be vibratory)
12. A
body is executing S.H.M with force constant k with an amplitude ‘a’, when its
displacement is ‘x’. Its instantaneous K.E is represented by __________.
(1/2
k(x2-a2), ½ kx2, ½ k(a2-x2), A(k/m)
13. A
simple pendulum is performing S.H.M with period T. If its length is doubled.
The new time period will be __________.
(2T,
0.5T, 2.5T, 1.414 T)
14. If we
increase the length of simple pendulum its time period will __________.
(Increase,
Decrease, Remain same, becomes infinite)
15. A
simple pendulum that behaves as a seconds pendulum on earth. If it is taken to
moon. Where gravitational acceleration is one sixth that on earth. Its time
period will become __________.
(4seconds,
12seconds, 3.5 seconds, 4.9 seconds)
16. A
particle is moving in a circular path with constant angular speed. The motion
of its projection along its any diameter is __________.
(Projectile,
Translatory, Vibratory, Circular)
17. The
trajectory of the bob of a vibrating simple pendulum after it has got suddenly
detached from the thread while passing through its mean position is __________.
(Straight
Line, Circular, Parabolic, Hyperbolic)
18. A
string stretched between two fixed points is vibrating in one segment. The
frequency generated is called __________.
(First
overtone, fundamental Frequency, Second Harmonic, Normal Harmonic)
19. When
the temperature of air rises, the speed of sound waves increases because.
(Frequency
of the wave increases, both frequency and wavelength increases, Only wave
length increases, Neither frequency nor wavelength changes)
20. The
angular speed of the second hand of a watch is __________.
(p/30
rad/s, 1 rad/s, prad/s, 2p rad/s)
21.
Restoring force is always present in __________.
(Linear
Motion, Circular Motion, Simple Harmonic Motion, Projectile Motion)
22. The
frequency of vibration in string of sonometer under tension T is f. If the
vibrating length is halved, keeping tension constant, for the same wire, the
frequency becomes __________.
(2f, 12f,
½ f, 4f)
23. A
simple pendulum is transported to moon its frequency of oscillation will
__________.
(Decreases,
Increases, Remain constant, Become zero)
24. The
pitch of note obtained by plucking a stretched string would be lowered by
__________.
(Increasing
the tension of the wire, Plucking it more vigorously, reducing the length of
the string, wrapping a length of the fine wire round the string)
25. When
pitch of a note is raised then __________.
(Frequency
is decreased, Speed of sound is increased,
speed of
sound is decreased, wavelength is increased)
26.
__________ of the following must differ for a transverse and longitudinal wave
moving in the same direction.
(Wavelength,
Frequency, Amplitude, direction of Vibration)
27. A
spectator watching a cricket match sees the bat strikes the ball and hears the
sound of this about half a second later. This is because light waves and sounds
waves have a different __________.
(Amplitude,
Frequency, Intensity, Speed)
28. In
one medium a wave has a frequency of the wave length l and speed c, the waves
passes from this medium to another where its speed is 2/3c. In the second
medium the __________.
(frequency
is still f and the wave length still l, frequency is still f, but wavelength is
2/3 l, the wavelength is still l, but frequency is 2/3f, frequency is still f,
but wavelenth is 3/2 l)
29.
Dolphins can communicate by emitting sounds of frequency 150,000 Hz. If speed
of sound in water is 1500 m/s, the wavelength of these sounds will be
__________.
(1 m, 0.1
m, 0.01 m, 0.001m)
30. The
motion of the particles of air, when sound waves passes through it is
__________.
(Period,
Circular, Is an example of Brownian motion, Motion will constant acceleration)
31. Two
stringed instruments are playing notes of the same pitch, __________ of the
following must be same for these notes.
(Amplitude,
Frequency, Length of String, quality)
32. A
simple pendulum is performing simple harmonic motion (SHM) __________ of the
following will remain constant through out its motion.
(Acceleration
of the bob, Its amplitude, Force on the bob, Velocity of the bob)
33. For a
system to execute S.H.M, its must possesses __________.
(Only
elasticity, Only inertia, Elasticity as well as inertia, Neither elasticity nor
inertia)
34. A
spring of force constant k is broken into two equal parts, then the force
constant of each part is __________.
(k/2, 2k,
k/Ö2, k)
35. The
SI unit for force constant are __________.
(N, Nm-1,
Nm-2,Nm)
36. Time
period of a simple pendulum is T. It is kept in a lift, which is accelerating
upward. The time period of the pendulum will __________.
(Increase,
Decrease, Remain the same, First increase then decrease)
37. In
the above question if the lift moves upwards with uniform velocity, its time
period will __________.
(Increases,
Decreases, Remain the same, Nothing can be said)
38. In
the question number 36, the lift falls freely. They the time period will
__________.
(Increase,
Decrease, Remain the same, Become infinite)
39. A
body is executing S.H.M of amplitude A. Its potential energy is maximum when it
displacement is __________.
(Zero,
A/2, A, ±A)
40. Mass
m is suspended from an elastic spring of spring constant k. The time period of
small oscillation is __________.
(2p Öm/k,
2p Ö2m/k, 2p Ök/m, 2p Ö2k/m)
41. The
dimensional formula for spring constant k is __________.
(MT-3,
MT-2, MLT-2MT-1)
42. In
resonance condition the amplitude of oscillation is __________.
(Very
small, Small, Very large, Large)
43. The
SI unit of force constant is identical to that of __________.
(Pressure,
Energy, Surface Tension, Force)
44. If
the oscillations are highly damped, the amplitude of oscillation __________.
(Decreases
with time, Increases with time, Remains constant with time, First increases
then decreases)
45. The
time period of a simple pendulum at the centre of the earth is __________.
(Zero,
Infinity, Unity, Same as thaht at the surface of the earth)
46. In
S.H.M the maximum acceleration is a and maximum velocity is b, its time period
is __________.
(2pb/a,
2pa/b, a/2pb, b/2pa)
47. In
S.H.M the graph between force and displacement is __________.
(Parabolic,
Hyperbolic, Exponential, Linear)
48. The
tuning fork A is of a slightly higher frequency than a fork B. they are
employed to produce beats. On loading the fork A the frequency of beats will
__________.
(Increase,
Decrease, Remain the same, become zero)
49. Beats
are the result of __________.
(Diffraction,
Constructive Interference only, Destructive Interference only, Constructive and
Destructive Interference both)
50. The
distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is __________.
(l, l/2,
l/4, l/6)
51. The
stem of a vibrating tuning fork is pressed against a tabletop. The duration of
its vibration __________.
(Increase,
Decrease, Remains unchanged, Becomes infinite)
52. In a
simple harmonic motion we have the conservation of __________.
(Kinetic
energy, Potential energy, Total energy, Electrical energy)
53. The
velocity of longitudinal vibrations in a solid depends on its __________.
(Rigidity
Modulus, Bulk Modulus, Young’s Modulus, Poison’s Ratio)
54. In a
simple harmonic motion __________ is constant.
(K.E is
constant, amplitude is constant, phase is constant, P.E is constant)
55. When
beats are produced by two travelling waves of nearly the same frequency then
__________.
(the
particles vibrate simple harmonically with a frequency equal to the difference
in the frequencies of the two waves, the amplitude of vibration at any point
changes simple harmonically with a frequency equal to the difference in the
frequencies of the two waves, The frequency of beats depends on the position,
where the beats are heard, the frequency of beats decreases as the time is
passing_
56. When
beats are produced by two travelling waves of same amplitude and of nearly the
same frequencies, then __________.
(The
maximum loudness heard is two times thaht corresponding to each of the
constituent waves, The amximum loudness heard is four times thaht corresponding
to each of the constituent waves, The maximum loudness heard is the same as
thaht of corresponding to each of the constituent waves, the maximum loudness
heard is 8 times thath corresponding to each of the wave)
57. When
beats are produced by two waves, T1 = a sin 1000pt and T2 = a sin 1008 pt then
__________ of the following gives the frequency of the beats heard.
(8p/sec,
8 /sec, 4/sec, 4p/sec)
58. When
stationary waves are set up in a medium, __________ of the following statements
is correct.
(Rarefaction
occurs at the antinode, Compression takes place at all the nodes, no strain is
felt at the antinodes, Maximum strain is felt at the antinodes)
59. When
stationary waves are set then __________.
(All the
particles of the medium are in same phase, particles separated by a distance of
an amplitude out of phase, all the particles between two consective nodes are
in phase, particles separated by a distance of an amplitude are always in
phase)
60. When
stationary waves are set up in a medium then __________.
(Energy
is propagated at a rate double thaht of travelling waves of equal amplitude and
of equal velocity, the flux of energy through any area is zero, the energy
density is same throughout the space, the medium possesses no net energy)
61. When
stationary waves are set up in a medium then __________.
(The
amplitude of vibration changes simple harmonically with the distance of the
particle from the origin, all particles are in the same phase, different
particles of the medium have different periods of oscillation, amplitude of
vibration of each particle changes simple harmonically with time)
62. When
stationary waves are produced in a medium. The amplitude of vibration
__________.
(of a
particle changes from time to time, is the same for particles separated by half
the wave length, changes simple harmonically with time, is the time for all the
particles)
63. Two
tuning forks A and B produce 7 beats per second, when sounded together. On
loading the fork A slightly only 5 beats are heard in a second. If the
frequency of fork B is 200 cps, the frequency of the fork A after loading will
be __________.
(190 cps,
195 cps, 210 cps, 205 cps)
64. Two
forks A and B produce 7 beats per second. On loading the fork A slightly the
number of beats reduces to 5 beats per second. If the frequency of the fork B
is 200cps. The frequency of the fork A before loading is __________.
(190 cps,
195 cps, 207 cps, 205 cps)
65. In
stationary waves, the amplitude of vibration will have a maximum value at
positions separated by a distance equal to __________.
(l, l/2,
l/4, l/3)
66. In a
transverse arrangement, a stretched string vibrates in two loops. If the same
string under the same tension vibrates in one loop, the frequency in latter
case divided by the frequency in former case will be __________.
(1, ½, 2,
Ö2)
67. A
source of sound wave moves away with the velocity of sound from a stationary
observer. The frequency of the note is __________.
(Unchanged,
Doubled, halved, squared)
68. The
frequency of a man’s voice is 200 cps and its wavelength is 2 m. If the
wavelength of a child’s voice is 4 m then the frequency of the child’s voice in
the same medium is __________.
(200, 25,
100, 400)
69. If
the densities of two gases are in the ratio 25:9 then the velocities of sound
in two gases (having the same value of ratio of specific heats) at the same
pressure will be in the ratio __________.
(25 :
9, 5 : 3, 9 : 25, 3 : 5)
70. The
ratio of the fundamental frequency of an organ pipe open at both ends to that
of the organ pipe closed at one end is __________
(1 :
2, 2 : 1, 1.5 : 1, 1 : 1)
71. The
velocity of longitudinal waves passing through metal rod is proportional to the
square root of __________.
(Tension,
Young’s Modulus, Bulk Modulus, Rigidity)
72. The
velocity of sound waves in fluid medium at absolute temperature T is directly
proportional to __________.
(T, T1/2,
T-1/2, T-1)
73. The
velocity of transverse vibrations in sonometer under tension T is proportional
to __________.
(T, T1/2,
T-1/2, T-1)
74. Sound
travels faster in __________.
(Air,
Water, Vacuum, Glass)
75. When
source of sound waves moves towards an observer at rest in the atmosphere, the
pitch of the note heard by the observer is higher because __________.
(Wavelength
of waves becomes smaller, Wavelength remains unchanged byt the observer receive
a larger number of waves per second, The pitch of the source increases, The
velocity of sound waves increases)
76. Sound
waves cannot be __________.
(Reflected,
Refracted, Diffracted, Polarized)
77. When
a body travelling with supersonic speed approaches a stationary observer the
__________.
(The
pitch appears to increase, The pitch appears to decrease, The pitch is
unaltered, doppler’s effect is inapplicable)
78. When
sound waves travel from air to water, the quantity that remains unchanged is
__________.
(Speed,
Frequency, Intensity, Wavelength)
79.
Velocity of sound in a gas increases with __________.
(temperature,
pressure, humidity, frequency)
80. When
the pressure of the gas is doubled, the velocities of sound in it are
__________.
(Doubled,
halved, unaltered, squared)
81. When
the temperature of a gas is increased to 4 times the velocity of sound V
becomes __________.
(V/4,
V/2, 2V, 4V)
82.
Velocity of sound is __________.
(Directly
proportional to temperature, Inversely proportional to temperature, Independent
of changes in pressure, Independent of amount of humidity in air)
83. Sound
waves in air are __________.
(Longitudinal,
Transverse, Neither longitudinal nor transverse, both longitudinal and
transverse)
84. At
__________ temperature will be velocity of sound be double of its value at 0°C.
(819°C,
8190°C, 81.9°C, None of these)
85. In
sonometer, the frequency of a sonometer wire is given by n = 1/2L ÖT/m. Where
SI unit of the symbol m is __________.
(kg,
kgm-1, Nm-1, kgm-2)
86. In a
vibrating tuning fork, the waves produced between the prongs of the fork are
__________.
(Progressive,
Simple Harmonic, Stationary, Plane)
87. The
SI unit for intensity of sound is __________.
(Joule,
J/s, Jm-2, Wm-2)
88. The
dimensional formula for intensity is __________.
(MLT-2,
MLT-3, ML°T-3, ML°T-2)
89.
Stationary waves of frequency 165Hz are formed in air. If the velocity of sound
waves is 330m/s, the shortest distance between two nodes is __________.
(1m, 2m,
4m, Zero)
90.
Production of beats is a result of the phenomenon of __________.
(Resonance,
Interference, Reflection, Diffraction)
91. As a
result of interference, energy __________.
(Is lost,
is gained, is transmitted, remaisn unchanged as a whole but is distributed)
92. A
rope can carry a transverse wave because it has the property of __________.
(Mass,
elasticity, density, compressibility)
93. The
pitch of the whistle of an engine changes in the ratio of 6 : 5 as it
approaches a stationary observer. If v is the velocity of sound waves, the
velocity of the engine is __________.
(v, v/3,
v/5, v/11)
94. The
speed of wave in a rope can be increased by __________.
(Shaking
the end faster, shakeing the end over a under range, stretching the rope
tighter, using a heavier rope)
95.
Doppler’s effect applies to __________.
(Onkly
sound waves, only light waves, both sound and light waves, neither sound nor
light waves)
96. The
distance from crest to crest of any wave is called its __________.
(Frequency,
Wavelength, Speed, Amplitude)
97. Sound
travels fastest in __________.
(Air,
Water, Iron, Vacuum)
98. When
source and observer are moving away from each other the apparent pitch will
__________.
(Increase,
Decrease, Remain same, Become infinite)
99.
__________ of the following is the SI unit of frequency.
(Hertz,
cycles/sec, netwon, erg)
100. For
a closed pipe, the second overtone is the __________.
(Second
harmonic, Third harmonic, Fourth harmonic, Fifth harmonic)
101. A
wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the wave goes
from left to right is classed as __________.
(Longitudinal,
Transverse, Compressional, Sound)
102. As a
man move directly away from a steady source of sound at constant speed, the
sound he hears will __________.
(Increase
in frequency and intensity, decrease in frequency and intensity, stay constant
in pitch but decrease in loudness, remain constant in both pitch and loudness)
103.
Decibel is __________.
(A
musical instrument, musical note, a measure of intensity level, the wavelength
of noise)
104.
Increased loudness produced when two bodies vibrate sympathetically is called
__________.
(An echo,
beats, destructive interference, resonance)
105.
Damping is a __________.
(Reduction
in frequency, Reduction in wavelength, reduction in amplitude, All of these)
106.
Wavelength is the distance between two nearest particles of the medium having
phase difference __________.
(p/4,
p/2, p, 0)
107. At
the mean position of vibration, the velocity of the vibrating particle is
__________.
(Zero,
Infinity, Maximum, None of these)
108. The
pitch of a sound is determined by its __________.
(Speed,
Frequency, Direction, Number of beats)
109. When
the soldiers corss a bridge, they are advised to march out of step due to the
__________.
(Resonance,
High frequency, Noise produced, Fact thath bridge is weak)
110. A
pulse on a string is inverted when it is reflected from a __________.
(free
end, fixed end, both free and fixed end, none of these)
111. When
two vibrating systems are in resonance, then their __________.
(Amplitude
are equal, Frequencies are equal, Resistances are equal, Temperatures are
equal)
112.
Sounds above a frequency of 20000 Hz are called __________.
(Supersonic,
infrasonic, hypersonic, ultrasonic)
113. When
waves go from one place to another, they transport __________.
(Amplitude,
Frequency, Wavelength, Energy)
114.
Transverse waves are traveling along string, when the tension is increased to
four times its original value, the velocity of the waves is __________.
(Doubled,
reduced to one half, reduced to one fourth, increased to four times its
original value)
115. To
produce beats it is necessary to used two waves __________.
(traveling
in opposite direction, of slightly different frequencies, of equal wavelength,
of equal amplitude)
116. The
amplitude of sound wave determines its __________.
(Loudness,
Pitch, Reverberation, Interference)
117.
Overtones are __________.
(Beats,
the fundamental produced in a pipe, the notes produced in a pipe other than the
fundamental, all of these)
118. Two
tuning forks of 340 and 343 Hz are sounded together. The resulting beats per
second will be __________.
(1, 2, 3,
4)
119. The
speed of sound waves in air having a frequency of 256 Hz compared with the
speed of sound waves having a frequency of 512 Hz is __________.
(half as
great, the same, twice as great, four times as great)
120. The
apparent change in frequency due to a relative motion between the source and
the observer is known as __________.
(Laplace ’s Priciple, Sabine’s Principle, Newtonian’s
Principle, Doppler’s Principle)
121. If E
is the coefficient of volume elasticity (Bulk Modulus) of the medium and d its
density, then the velocity of a longitudinal wave in fluid is given by
__________.
(v = E/P,
v = ÖE/d, v = P/E, v = ÖP/E)
122. We
know that the velocity of sound obtained from Newton
(Sound
travels in air under isothermal conditions, soundtravels in air under adiabatic
conditions, sound travels in air as a transverse wave motion, none of these is
correct)
123.
Velocity of sound as given by Laplace is
__________.
(v =
Ögr/d, v = rÖg/d, v = gr/d, v = gÖr/d)
124. It
is possible to recognize a person by hearing his voice even if he is hidden
behind a solid wall. This is due to the fact that his voice __________.
(has a
definite pitch, has a definite quality, has a definite capacitor, can penetrate
the wall)
125. Two
waves arrive simultaneously at a point in phase. The disturbance, at the point,
due to each wave is 2.5 mm and 3.5 mm respectively the resultant disturbance is
__________.
(2.5 mm,
6 mm, 3.5 mm, 1mm)
126.
Successive nodes or antinodes occur at points, separation between which is
__________.
(l/4,
l/2, 3l/4, l)
127. The
period of pendulum is determined by its __________.
(Length,
Mass, Maximum Speed, Amplitude)
128. Red
shift indicates the __________.
(Aproach
of a star, Recession of a star, Stationary
State
Chapter 9 - Wave
Aspect of Light
1. Light
waves __________.
(Require
air or another gas to travel through, require an electric field to travel
through, require a magnetic field to travel through, can travel through a
perfect vacuum)
2. The
blue colour of the sky is due to due to fact that __________.
(Red
light is absorbed, blue colour is preferentially scattered, red light is
preferentially scattered, this is the natureal colour)
3. The
wavelength 10000 A° belong to __________.
(Infra
red spectrum, Ultra violet spectrum, visible range, green light)
4.
Monochromatic green light has a wavelength of 520 nm in air. The wavelength of
this light inside glass of refractive index 1.5 is approximately.
(300nm,
340nm, 520nm, 780nm)
5. The
property of light waves thath leads to the phenomenon of colour is their
__________.
(Velocity,
Amplitude, Quality, Wavelength)
6. If
Plank’s constant h = 6.625 x 10-34 J/Hz. The energy associated with light with
a wavelength of 160nm is __________.
(1.24 x
10-18 J, 1.88 x 10-18 J, 1.24 x 10-15 J, 1.24 x 10-15 J)
7.
__________ proposed electromagnetic wave theory.
(Fresnel,
Huygen, Maxwell, Fraunhoffer)
8. Two
light waves meet at time when one has the instantaneous amplitude A and the
other has the instantaneous amplitude B. Their combined amplitude is
__________.
(A + B,
between A + B and –(A + B), A – B, Indeterminate)
9.
Maxwell based his theory of electromagnetic waves on the hypothesis that a
changing electric field gives rise to __________.
(An
electric current, stream of electrons, A magnetic field, longitudinal waves)
10.
__________ of the following phenomenon cannot be explained by the wave theory
of light.
(Refraction,
Interference, Photoelectric, Polarization)
11. In
the complete electromagnetic spectrum __________ of the following has least
frequency.
12. The
number of fringes passing through a reference point, if the moveable mirror of
Michlson’s interferometer is moved by 0.08 mm, when the wavelength of light
used is 5800 A°, are __________.
(275, 276
250, 2.75)
13.
__________ of the following demonstrates the transverse nature of light waves.
(Interference,
Polarization, Diffraction, Refraction)
14. The
locus of all points in the same state of vibrations is known as __________.
(Half
period zone, a half wave zone, a wave front, none of thse)
15.
__________ is invalid for a photon.
(Its mass
is h2n2, it has zero rest mass, all its energy is K.E, its momentum is hn/c)
16.
__________ of the following is not a property of light waves.
(they
transfer energy from one place to another, They can travel through vacuum, They
are transverse waves, They travel at the same speed through glass and water)
17. The
phenomenon of interference of light was first demonstrated by __________.
(Newton
18.
__________ of the following is not associated with light waves.
(Transmission
of energy, Interference, Diffraction, Longitudinal Vibrations)
19.
Formation of colour in a thin film of oil is due to __________.
(Interference
of light waves, diffraction of light waves, Scattering of light rays,
Dispersion of light rays)
20. Newton
(Reflection,
Refraction, Diffraction, thin film interference)
21.
Interferometer measures __________.
(Velocity
of light in gases, wavelength of monochromatic light, thickness of very thin
objects, illuminating power of light)
22.
__________ of the following is not true for interference of light.
(The two
waves should be of same amplitude, the two waves should be phase coherent, the
two waves should travel in the opposite direction through the medium, the two
waves should be monochromatic)
23. Two
monochromatic waves of same wavelength are travelling through a medium. They
can interfere destructively. Provided their path difference is __________.
(2l, l,
5/2 l, 5l)
24.
Double slit arrangement is suggested by Young in order to obtain __________.
(monochromatic
light, phase coherence, constructive interference, destructive interference)
25. In
Young’s double slit arrangement, the bright fringes obtained are __________.
(Of
uniform intensity, of non uniform width, coloured, circular)
26. For
constructive interference the path difference should be __________.
(Zero or
integral multiple of wavelength, only integral multiple of wavelength, zero or
multiple of wavelength, odd multiple of wavelenght)
27. The
two light waves can interference destructively if __________.
(They
reach a point in phase, they reach a point out of phase by p radian, they are
traveling through a medium in opposite direction, none of these is true)
28. Newton
(Plano convex lens of small focal length, plano
29. In Newton
(Always
bright, always dark, can be bright or dark, of blue colour)
30. The
conditions for the production of constructive and destructive interference are
reversed due to the fact that on striking the thin film __________.
(Two rays
of splitted light under go phase change of 180°, One of two rays of splitted
light undergo phase change of 180°, light is diffracted, light is polarized)
31. When
electromagnetic waves strike the boundary of denser medium they are __________.
(Reflected,
in phase, Reflected out of phase by 180°, reflected, they are completely
abosrbed)
32. In
Michelson interferometer semi silvered mirror is used to obtain __________.
(Thin
film interference, Phase coherence, mono chromatic light, coloured fringe)
33.
Diffraction is special type of __________.
(Reflection,
Refraction, Interference, Polarization)
34.
Fresnel’s type diffraction is observed when __________.
(Only
screen is placed at finite distance, Only source is placed at finite distance,
Both source and screen are at finite distance, Neither source nor screen is at
finite distance)
35.
Fraunhoffer’s diffraction is observed when __________.
(Only
screen is placed at finite distance, souce is placed at finite distance,
neither source nor screen is at finite distance)
36. In
Fraunhoffer’s diffraction wave front used is __________.
(Spherical,
Circular, Plane, Conical)
37. In diffraction
pattern of monochromatic light the bright bands formed are __________.
(Of
uniform intensity, of non-uniform intensity, of uniform width, are of different
colours)
38. The
points of constructive interference of light are __________.
(Always
bright, may be bright or dark, always dark, neither bright nor dark)
39. The
diffraction observed by diffraction grating can also be termed as __________.
(Single
slit diffraction, Double slit Diffraction, Multiple Slit Diffraction, Fresnel’s
Diffraction)
40. The
grating used to observe, diffraction of visible light can have approximately
__________.
(300
lines per cm, 3000 lines per cm, 15000 lines per cm, 30 lines per cm)
41. X-ray
diffraction can be observed by using __________.
(Diffraction
Grating, Rock salt crystal, Convex lens, Michlsons’s interferometer)
42. The
phenomenon of Newton
(Wavelength
of monochromatic light, phase coherence of two sources, flatness of any glass
surface, velocity of light)
43. Two
sources of light are said to be coherent if __________.
(they
produce waves of the same wave length, they have the same amplitude of
vibration, they produce waves in the medium simultaneously, they produce waves
of the same amplitude)
44. As
the order increases, the width of a dark band in diffraction patterns
__________.
(Increases,
Decreases, Does not change, becomes infinity)
45. The
path difference corresponding to a phase difference of p radian is __________.
(2l, l/2,
l/4 l)
46.
__________ of the following phenomenon can not be explained on the particle
nature of light.
(Photo
Electric Effect, Compton
47.
Fringe spacing is defined as the distance between two consecutive __________.
(Crests,
Bright fringes only, Dark fringes only, Bright or dark fringes)
48. If we
narrow the distance between two slits in Young’s experiment the fringes width
__________.
(Increases,
Decreases, Remains same, becomes zero)
49. When Newton
(Dark,
Multicoloured, Bright, None of these)
50. There
are two types of diffraction Fresnel and __________.
(Michelson,
De Broglie, Fraun Hofer, Huygens)
Chapter 10 –
Geometric OPtics
1. A lens
is a piece of transparent material that can focus __________.
(transmitted
bean of light, reflected beam of light, none of these)
2. A lens
is usually bounded by __________.
(two
spherical surfaces, two plane surfaces, spherical and plane surfaces)
3. Basically
lenses fall into __________.
(One
category, two categories, three categories)
4. A
convex lens is __________.
(thicker
in the middle and thinner on the edge, thinner in the middle and thicker on the
edge, none of these)
5. A
convex lens __________.
(converges
the light rays towards its optical centre, diverges the light rays towards its
optical axis, none of these)
6. A
concave lens __________.
(thinner
in the middle and thicker on the edges, thicker in the middle and thinner on
the edges, none of these)
7. A
concave lens bends the light rays from __________.
(Its
optical axis, Its optical centre, None of these)
8. The
point to which the light rays are brought to focus is called __________.
(Principle
Focus, Optical Axis, none of the above)
9. The
distance between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus is
called its __________.
(Focal
length, Radius of curvature, none of these)
10. The
point in the lens through which the light rays will pass without any deviation
is called its __________.
(Optical
centre, Optical axis, Principal axis)
11. In
convex lens when the object is placed beyond 2F then its image will form
__________.
(at 2F on
the other side, in between F and 2F on the other side, beyond 2F on the other
side)
12. In
converging lens when the object is placed within its focal length then the
image will form __________.
(At its
principal focus on the other side, on the same side where the object is placed,
none of these)
13. In
convex lens the image distance is taken as positive for __________.
(Real
image, Virtual image, none of these)
14. The
relation between the focal length and the power of a lens is that __________.
(they are
reciprocal to each other, they are inversely proportional to each other, none
of these)
15. The
use of a single converging lens is such a position when the object is placed
within its focal length is called __________.
(Magnifying
glass, Compound Microscope, none of these)
16. In
order to get higher magnification by magnifying glass, the lens used is of
__________.
(short
focal length, long (large) focal length, none of these)
17. If
the focal length of the lens is 10 cm then its power in diopter is __________.
(1, 5,
10)
18. The
power of the lens is 2 diopter then its focal length is __________.
(25cm,
50cm, 75 cm,)
19. The
focal length of the magnifying glass is 5 cm then its magnification is
__________.
(6, 2, 1)
20. If
the focal length of a diverging lens is 6cm and the object is placed at 12 cm
from it then image formed at a distance of __________.
(-2, -4,
-6)
21. If
the magnification of the lens is 6 and the image distance is 24cm then the
object distance is __________.
(2cm,
4cm, 6cm)
22. In
compound microscope the final image formed is __________.
(Virtual
and diminished, real and magnified, virtual and magnified)
23. In
compound microscope the objective will form a image which is __________.
(Virtual
and magnified, Real and Diminished, Real and magnified)
24. The
objective of the astronomical telescope will form an image with is __________.
(Virtual
and magnified, real and magnified, real and diminished)
25. The
Galilean telescope consists of __________.
(Single
lens, Two lenses, three lenses)
26. In
Galilean telescope the final image is __________.
(Real and
magnified, Virtual and magnified, Real and diminished)
27. The
magnifying power of the terrestrial telescope is the same as __________.
(Magnifying
glass, compound microscope, astronomical telescope)
28. The
length of the astronomical telescope, which is focussed for infinity, is
__________.
(Fo – Fe,
Fo + Fe, None of these)
29. An
astronomical telescope has the magnifying power 100 and focal length of
eyepiece is 4 cm, then the focal length of the objective is __________.
(40cm,
400cm, 25cm)
30. The
length of the Galilean telescope is given by __________.
(Fo – Fe,
Fo + Fe, None of these)
31. A
telescope has an objective of focal length 60 cm and eyepiece of focal length 3
cm then its magnifying power is __________.
(2, 20,
180)
32. If
the astronomical telescope has an objective of focal length 90 cm and the focal
length of the eyepiece is 10 cm, then length of the telescope is __________.
(9cm,
100cm, 80cm)
33. A
Galilean telescope has an objective of focal length 25 cm and an eye piece of
focal length 10 cm then its length is given as __________.
(35cm,
15cm, 250cm)
34. A
Galilean Telescope has an objective of focal length 25cm and an eyepiece of
focal length 5cm then its magnifying power is __________.
(5, 30,
125)
35. The
instrument, which is used to study the spectrum of luminous bodies, is called __________.
(Spectrometer,
Compound microscope, Polarimeter)
36.
Collimeter, telescope and turntable are the parts of __________.
(Compound
Microscope, Polarimeter, Spectrometer)
37. The
part of the spectrometer named as collimeter consists of a __________.
(Converging
lens, Diverging lens, none of these)
38. The
spectrometer is an analysing instrument used primarily to discover and measure
the __________.
(Speed of
light, Wavelength of light, Frequency of light)
39. The
spectrum of light, which shows band instead of lines, is called __________.
(Continuous
spectrum, line spectrum, band spectrum)
40. The
front of the eye is covered by a transparent membrane called __________.
(Cornea,
Retina, none of these)
41. The
abnormality myopia can be corrected by using __________.
(Converging
lens, Diverging lens, None of these)
42. The
abnormality hyperopia can be corrected by using a __________.
(Converging
lens, Diverging lens, none of these)
43. Under
normal condition the human eye is most sensitive for __________.
(Red
light, Yello-green light, Blue light)
44. The
power of the lens is measured in __________.
(Centimeter,
meter, diopter)
45. The
iris controls the __________.
(Wavelength
of the light entering in the eye, Speed of the light entering in the eye,
Amount of the light entering in the eye)
